Question 94  leverage, capital structure, real estate

Your friend just bought a house for $400,000. He financed it using a $320,000 mortgage loan and a deposit of $80,000.

In the context of residential housing and mortgages, the 'equity' tied up in the value of a person's house is the value of the house less the value of the mortgage. So the initial equity your friend has in his house is $80,000. Let this amount be E, let the value of the mortgage be D and the value of the house be V. So ##V=D+E##.

If house prices suddenly fall by 10%, what would be your friend's percentage change in equity (E)? Assume that the value of the mortgage is unchanged and that no income (rent) was received from the house during the short time over which house prices fell.

Remember:

### r_{0\rightarrow1}=\frac{p_1-p_0+c_1}{p_0} ###

where ##r_{0-1}## is the return (percentage change) of an asset with price ##p_0## initially, ##p_1## one period later, and paying a cash flow of ##c_1## at time ##t=1##.

(a) -100%

(b) -50%

(c) -12.5%

(d) -10%

(e) -8%

Question 77  interest tax shield

The equations for Net Income (NI, also known as Earnings or Net Profit After Tax) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA, also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm) per year are:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

For a firm with debt, what is the amount of the interest tax shield per year?

(a) ##IntExp.t_c##

(b) ##IntExp/t_c##

(c) ##IntExp.(1-t_c)##

(d) ##IntExp/(1-t_c)##

(e) ##IntExp.(t_c-1)##

Question 95  interest tax shield

The equations for Net Income (NI, also known as Earnings or Net Profit After Tax) and Cash Flow From Assets (CFFA, also known as Free Cash Flow to the Firm) per year are:

###NI=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-IntExp).(1-t_c)###

###CFFA=NI+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+IntExp###

For a firm with debt, what is the formula for the present value of interest tax shields if the tax shields occur in perpetuity?

You may assume:

• the value of debt (D) is constant through time,
• The cost of debt and the yield on debt are equal and given by ##r_D##.
• the appropriate rate to discount interest tax shields is ##r_D##.
• ##\text{IntExp}=D.r_D##

(a) ##D.t_c##

(b) ##D.r_D/t_c ##

(c) ##D.r_D.(1-t_c)##

(d) ##D.r_D/(1-t_c)##

(e) ##D.r_D.(t_c-1)##

Question 121  capital structure, leverage, financial distress, interest tax shield

Fill in the missing words in the following sentence:

All things remaining equal, as a firm's amount of debt funding falls, benefits of interest tax shields __________ and the costs of financial distress __________.

(a) Fall, fall.

(b) Fall, rises.

(c) Rise, fall.

(d) Rise, rise.

(e) Remain unchanged, remain unchanged.

Question 237  WACC, Miller and Modigliani, interest tax shield

Which of the following discount rates should be the highest for a levered company? Ignore the costs of financial distress.

(a) Cost of debt (##r_\text{D}##).

(b) Unlevered cost of equity (##r_\text{E, U}##).

(c) Levered cost of equity (##r_\text{E, L}##).

(d) Levered before-tax WACC (##r_\text{V, LxITS}##).

(e) Levered after-tax WACC (##r_\text{V, LwITS}##).

Question 302  WACC, CAPM

Which of the following statements about the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is NOT correct?

(a) WACC before tax ##= r_D.\dfrac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\dfrac{E_L}{V_L}##

(b) WACC before tax ##= r_f + \beta_{VL}.(r_m - r_f)##

(c) WACC after tax ##= r_D.(1-t_c).\dfrac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\dfrac{E_L}{V_L}##

(d) WACC after tax ##= r_f + \beta_{VL}.(r_m - r_f) - \dfrac{r_D.D.t_c}{V_L}##

(e) WACC after tax ##= r_f + \beta_{VL}.(r_m - r_f)##

Question 303  WACC, CAPM, CFFA

There are many different ways to value a firm's assets. Which of the following will NOT give the correct market value of a levered firm's assets ##(V_L)##? Assume that:

• The firm is financed by listed common stock and vanilla annual fixed coupon bonds, which are both traded in a liquid market.
• The bonds' yield is equal to the coupon rate, so the bonds are issued at par. The yield curve is flat and yields are not expected to change. When bonds mature they will be rolled over by issuing the same number of new bonds with the same expected yield and coupon rate, and so on forever.
• Tax rates on the dividends and capital gains received by investors are equal, and capital gains tax is paid every year, even on unrealised gains regardless of when the asset is sold.
• There is no re-investment of the firm's cash back into the business. All of the firm's excess cash flow is paid out as dividends so real growth is zero.
• The firm operates in a mature industry with zero real growth.
• All cash flows and rates in the below equations are real (not nominal) and are expected to be stable forever. Therefore the perpetuity equation with no growth is suitable for valuation.

(a) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.P_\text{share} + n_\text{bonds}.P_\text{bond}##

(b) ##V_L = n_\text{shares}.\dfrac{\text{Dividend per share}}{r_f + \beta_{EL}(r_m - r_f)} + n_\text{bonds}.\dfrac{\text{Coupon per bond}}{r_f + \beta_D(r_m - r_f)}##

(c) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC before tax}}##

(d) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{U}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

(e) ##V_L = \dfrac{\text{CFFA}_{L}}{r_\text{WACC after tax}}##

Where:

###r_\text{WACC before tax} = r_D.\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital before tax}### ###r_\text{WACC after tax} = r_D.(1-t_c).\frac{D}{V_L} + r_{EL}.\frac{E_L}{V_L} = \text{Weighted average cost of capital after tax}### ###NI_L=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr-\mathbf{IntExp}).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Levered}### ###CFFA_L=NI_L+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC+\mathbf{IntExp} = \text{Cash Flow From Assets Levered}### ###NI_U=(Rev-COGS-FC-Depr).(1-t_c) = \text{Net Income Unlevered}### ###CFFA_U=NI_U+Depr-CapEx - \varDelta NWC= \text{Cash Flow From Assets Unlevered}###

Question 84  WACC, capital structure, capital budgeting

A firm is considering a new project of similar risk to the current risk of the firm. This project will expand its existing business. The cash flows of the project have been calculated assuming that there is no interest expense. In other words, the cash flows assume that the project is all-equity financed.

In fact the firm has a target debt-to-equity ratio of 1, so the project will be financed with 50% debt and 50% equity. To find the levered value of the firm's assets, what discount rate should be applied to the project's unlevered cash flows? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) The required return on equity, ##r_E##

(b) The required return on debt, ##r_D##

(c) The after-tax required return on debt, ##r_D.(1-t_c)##

(d) The after-tax WACC, ##\text{WACC after tax}=\frac{D}{V_L}.r_D.(1-t_c )+\frac{E_L}{V_L}.r_E##

(e) The pre-tax WACC, ##\text{WACC before tax}=\frac{D}{V_L}.r_D+\frac{E_L}{V_L}.r_E##

Question 68  WACC, CFFA, capital budgeting

A manufacturing company is considering a new project in the more risky services industry. The cash flows from assets (CFFA) are estimated for the new project, with interest expense excluded from the calculations. To get the levered value of the project, what should these unlevered cash flows be discounted by?

Assume that the manufacturing firm has a target debt-to-assets ratio that it sticks to.

(a) The manufacturing firm's before-tax WACC.

(b) The manufacturing firm's after-tax WACC.

(c) A services firm's before-tax WACC, assuming that the services firm has the same debt-to-assets ratio as the manufacturing firm.

(d) A services firm's after-tax WACC, assuming that the services firm has the same debt-to-assets ratio as the manufacturing firm.

(e) The services firm's levered cost of equity.

Question 69  interest tax shield, capital structure, leverage, WACC

Which statement about risk, required return and capital structure is the most correct?

(a) The before-tax cost of debt is less than the before-tax cost of equity. Therefore debt is a cheaper form of financing than equity so companies should try to finance their projects with debt only.

(b) Debt makes a firm's equity more risky. Therefore the higher the amount of debt, the higher the cost of equity.

(c) The more debt a firm has, the higher its tax shields. Therefore firms should seek to have as much debt and as little equity as possible.

(d) The more debt, the lower the firm's after tax WACC. The after tax WACC is the discount rate that discounts the firm's cash flows, so the lower it is the more the firm is worth. Therefore firms should try to make their after tax WACC as low as possible by using as much debt as possible.

(e) The less debt, the lower the chance of bankruptcy. Therefore firms should try to pay off all of their debt so that they are financed by equity only.

Question 74  WACC, capital structure, CAPM

A firm's weighted average cost of capital before tax (##r_\text{WACC before tax}##) would increase due to:

(a) The firm issuing more debt and using the proceeds to repurchase stock.

(b) The firm issuing more equity and using the proceeds to pay off debt holders.

(c) The firm's industry becoming more systematically risky, for example if it was a mining company whose performance became more sensitive to countries' GDP growth, so the correlation of the firm's returns with the market was higher.

(d) The firm's industry becoming less systematically risky, for example if it was a child care centre and the government announced higher subsidies for parents using child care centres, so the correlation of the firm's returns with the market was lower.

(e) None of the above.

Question 78  WACC, capital structure

A company issues a large amount of bonds to raise money for new projects of similar risk to the company's existing projects. The net present value (NPV) of the new projects is positive but small. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is NOT correct?

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will increase.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will increase.

(c) Firm value is likely to have increased due to the higher amount of interest tax shields, assuming that there will not be any costs of financial distress.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC is likely to have decreased.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC is likely to have decreased.

Question 91  WACC, capital structure

A firm has a debt-to-assets ratio of 50%. The firm then issues a large amount of equity to raise money for new projects of similar systematic risk to the company's existing projects. Assume a classical tax system. Which statement is correct?

(a) The debt-to-assets (D/V) ratio will increase.

(b) The debt-to-equity ratio (D/E) will increase.

(c) Firm value is likely to have increased due to the higher amount of interest tax shields, assuming that there will not be any costs of financial distress.

(d) The company's after-tax WACC is likely to stay the same.

(e) The company's before-tax WACC is likely to stay the same.

Question 114  WACC, capital structure, risk

A firm's WACC before tax would decrease due to:

(a) the firm's industry becoming more systematically risky, for example if it was a mining company and commodities prices varied more strongly and were more positively correlated with the market portfolio.

(b) the firm's industry becoming less systematically risky, for example if it was a child care centre and the government announced permanently higher subsidies for parents' child care expenses.

(c) the firm issuing more debt and using the proceeds to repurchase stock.

(d) the firm issuing more equity and using the proceeds to pay off debt holders.

(e) none of the above.

Question 75  WACC, CAPM

A company has:

• 50 million shares outstanding.
• The market price of one share is currently $6.
• The risk-free rate is 5% and the market return is 10%.
• Market analysts believe that the company's ordinary shares have a beta of 2.
• The company has 1 million preferred stock which have a face (or par) value of $100 and pay a constant dividend of 10% of par. They currently trade for $80 each.
• The company's debentures are publicly traded and their market price is equal to 90% of their face value.
• The debentures have a total face value of $60,000,000 and the current yield to maturity of corporate debentures is 10% per annum. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What is the company's after-tax weighted average cost of capital (WACC)? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) 11.75%

(b) 11.82%

(c) 13.54%

(d) 13.78%

(e) 20.84%

Question 117  WACC

A firm can issue 5 year annual coupon bonds at a yield of 8% pa and a coupon rate of 12% pa.

The beta of its levered equity is 1. Five year government bonds yield 5% pa with a coupon rate of 6% pa. The market's expected dividend return is 4% pa and its expected capital return is 6% pa.

The firm's debt-to-equity ratio is 2:1. The corporate tax rate is 30%.

What is the firm's after-tax WACC? Assume a classical tax system.

(a) 9.47%

(b) 8.93%

(c) 8.53%

(d) 7.80%

(e) 7.07%

Question 241  Miller and Modigliani, leverage, payout policy, diversification, NPV

One of Miller and Modigliani's (M&M's) important insights is that a firm's managers should not try to achieve a particular level of leverage in a world with zero taxes and perfect information since investors can make their own leverage. Therefore corporate capital structure policy is irrelevant since investors can achieve their own desired leverage at the personal level by borrowing or lending on their own.

This principal of 'home-made' or 'do-it-yourself' leverage can also be applied to other topics. Read the following statements to decide which are true:

(I) Payout policy: a firm's managers should not try to achieve a particular pattern of equity payout.

(II) Agency costs: a firm's managers should not try to minimise agency costs.

(III) Diversification: a firm's managers should not try to diversify across industries.

(IV) Shareholder wealth: a firm's managers should not try to maximise shareholders' wealth.

Which of the above statement(s) are true?

(a) I only.

(b) I and II only.

(c) I and III only.

(d) III only.

(e) All are true.

Question 104  CAPM, payout policy, capital structure, Miller and Modigliani, risk

Assume that there exists a perfect world with no transaction costs, no asymmetric information, no taxes, no agency costs, equal borrowing rates for corporations and individual investors, the ability to short the risk free asset, semi-strong form efficient markets, the CAPM holds, investors are rational and risk-averse and there are no other market frictions.

For a firm operating in this perfect world, which statement(s) are correct?

(i) When a firm changes its capital structure and/or payout policy, share holders' wealth is unaffected.

(ii) When the idiosyncratic risk of a firm's assets increases, share holders do not expect higher returns.

(iii) When the systematic risk of a firm's assets increases, share holders do not expect higher returns.

Select the most correct response:

(a) Only (i) is true.

(b) Only (ii) is true.

(c) Only (iii) is true.

(d) Only (i) and (ii) are true.

(e) All statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.

Question 99  capital structure, interest tax shield, Miller and Modigliani, trade off theory of capital structure

A firm changes its capital structure by issuing a large amount of debt and using the funds to repurchase shares. Its assets are unchanged.

Assume that:

• The firm and individual investors can borrow at the same rate and have the same tax rates.
• The firm's debt and shares are fairly priced and the shares are repurchased at the market price, not at a premium.
• There are no market frictions relating to debt such as asymmetric information or transaction costs.
• Shareholders wealth is measured in terms of utiliity. Shareholders are wealth-maximising and risk-averse. They have a preferred level of overall leverage. Before the firm's capital restructure all shareholders were optimally levered.

According to Miller and Modigliani's theory, which statement is correct?

(a) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both decrease. This is because the firm will have more debt and therefore more risk so the discount rate applied to its cash flows will be higher, decreasing the value of the firm and therefore the value of the firm's equity and share price.

(b) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the firm will have more debt which will amplify the returns of equity investors. This will mean that returns on equity can be much higher and investors will pay a premium for this, leading to an increase in the stock price.

(c) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase since it has more debt and therefore more tax shields.

(d) The firm's share price will increase due to the higher value of tax shields. But shareholder wealth will remain unchanged because capital structure is irrelevant when investors can use home-made leverage to create tax-shields themselves.

(e) The firm's share price and shareholder wealth will both increase. This is because the cost of debt is cheaper than equity, leading to a lower (before and after tax) WACC. This lower WACC will lead to a higher value of the firm and a higher share price.

Question 120  credit risk, payout policy

A newly floated farming company is financed with senior bonds, junior bonds, cumulative non-voting preferred stock and common stock. The new company has no retained profits and due to floods it was unable to record any revenues this year, leading to a loss. The firm is not bankrupt yet since it still has substantial contributed equity (same as paid-up capital).

On which securities must it pay interest or dividend payments in this terrible financial year?

(a) Preferred stock only.

(b) The senior and junior bonds only.

(c) Common stock only.

(d) The senior and junior bonds and the preferred stock.

(e) No payments on any security is required since the firm made a loss.

Question 337  capital structure, interest tax shield, leverage, real and nominal returns and cash flows, multi stage growth model

A fast-growing firm is suitable for valuation using a multi-stage growth model.

It's nominal unlevered cash flow from assets (##CFFA_U##) at the end of this year (t=1) is expected to be $1 million. After that it is expected to grow at a rate of:

• 12% pa for the next two years (from t=1 to 3),
• 5% over the fourth year (from t=3 to 4), and
• -1% forever after that (from t=4 onwards). Note that this is a negative one percent growth rate.

Assume that:

• The nominal WACC after tax is 9.5% pa and is not expected to change.
• The nominal WACC before tax is 10% pa and is not expected to change.
• The firm has a target debt-to-equity ratio that it plans to maintain.
• The inflation rate is 3% pa.
• All rates are given as nominal effective annual rates.

What is the levered value of this fast growing firm's assets?

(a) $13.19m

(b) $12.36m

(c) $11.77m

(d) $11.53m

(e) $11.20m